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(Solved): Prove without using Taylor Polynomials: If f is concave up on (a, b), then c (a, b), d ...



Prove without using Taylor Polynomials:

If f is concave up on (a, b), then ?c ? (a, b), ?d ? R such that ?x ? (a, b), f(x) ? d(x ? c) + f(c)



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Given the following information f(x) is concave up on (a,b) Hence BY definition f?(x)>0 Given that c?(a,b),d?R
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